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 Theory question
Author: musica 
Date:   2009-05-15 11:51

I have a series of trills Bb to C then A# to B#, Ab to Bb, G# to A#. Why would
you notate in this way??? Thanks!
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 Re: Theory question
Author: Curinfinwe 
Date:   2009-05-15 12:06

It's likely to reflect the chord structure that's going on in that song at the moment. the Bb to C would fit in one chord, and then the rest of the band would change to a different chord, so even though you're still playing the same notes, if you were to write out the chord it would be correct.
Really confusing explanation. Sorry!
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 Re: Theory question
Author: Dileep Gangolli 
Date:   2009-05-15 12:28

This type of question came up just a week or so ago.

It's due to enharmonic spellings and, the post above me has stated, due to the underlying chords rather than the notes themselves.
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