Author: Steve Epstein
Date: 2001-07-25 21:50
So, when, for example, the violin section of the Philadelphia Orchestra plays in unison, and it sounds like one big violin, this means that not only are all the fundamentals of each note in tune, but all the overtones are the same, as well? And when folk or jazz musicians playing the same instrument play in unison, and it does not sound like one instrument, this means that they are in tune on their fundamental tones but not their overtones?
Am I correct?
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