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 Perier etude #6...why?
Author: jan 
Date:   2001-04-15 22:23

I just started the perier etudes. ive been working on #6 page 7 (anyone else use this book?)
anyway, its in 3/8 time ( 6 16th notes to a measure) part of the etude...the last 16th of one measure is tied to the first 16th of the next measure AND the last 16th is also tied to the second 16th note of the next measure. why is it written like that? if he wanted all 3 notes tied together why didnt he just use 1 line over all 3 notes? or are all 3 Not tied together? im confused.
jan

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 RE: Perier etude #6...why?
Author: Dee 
Date:   2001-04-15 23:30

jan wrote:
>
> I just started the perier etudes. ive been working on #6
> page 7 (anyone else use this book?)
> anyway, its in 3/8 time ( 6 16th notes to a measure) part of
> the etude...the last 16th of one measure is tied to the first
> 16th of the next measure AND the last 16th is also tied to the
> second 16th note of the next measure. why is it written like
> that? if he wanted all 3 notes tied together why didnt he just
> use 1 line over all 3 notes? or are all 3 Not tied together? im
> confused.
> jan

I'm not familiar with this etude but are all three notes on different pitches? Or is the last 16th of one measure the same pitch as the first sixteenth of the next with the following note being a different pitch?

If the last note and first note are the same pitch then this is a tie. If the next note is a different pitch, the marking is a slur. Normal notational standards require that ties and slurs be notated separately.

example

x x x x x D | D C x x x x

The mark from the D to D would be a tie but the mark from the first D to the C is a slur mark rather than a tie. One could also notate the slur by simply going from the second D to the C but placing it under (or over) the group makes it even clearer that the sequence "goes together" so to speak.

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 RE: Perier etude #6...why?
Author: jan 
Date:   2001-04-15 23:49

ok, there are several of the things thruout the etude but i will give just the first example:

E G B G E F|E A C A F(HIGH) F(LOW)
~
~~~~

theres a line from F to E and also from F to A.
why not start at F go thru to A on one line for all 3 instead of 2 lines. the 2 lines are confusing me cuz im not sure whether to slur or tongue the A.

sorry, i dont think im able to explain what im looking at....... hmmm, in other words, why not leave out the line from F to E since theres already one going from F to A? then it would be clear to me that they are all slurred.

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 RE: Perier etude #6...why?
Author: Dee 
Date:   2001-04-16 01:32

That's an unusual way to notate it but you would slur it (don't tongue the A).

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 RE: Perier etude #6...why?
Author: jan 
Date:   2001-04-16 01:35

okay, thank you.

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 RE: Perier etude #6...why?
Author: Todd W. 
Date:   2001-04-16 16:45

Jan--

Or . . . just looking at the few notes you've given above, and trying to extrapolate possible patterns, it may be that the E after the bar line is a misprint and should be an F. Then the tie and the slur would make sense. You could check with your teacher for a better opinion.

Todd W.

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 RE: Perier etude #6...why?
Author: Daniel 
Date:   2001-04-16 23:12

Looking at the Etude. It looks like the slur between the last and first 16th notes is just showing the the half step that he shows earlier in the etude (like in ms. 18-19, 20-21, etc).

So don't re-articulate the second 16th of those measures, but be sure you bring out the half step slurs from & of 3 to the downbeat of the next measure.

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