Author: Liquorice
Date: 2004-04-16 06:40
theclarinetist- sorry, I misunderstood your post. It was actually a bit ambiguous:
"You can't logically infer that he "changes" the piece simply because he is unable to play it "normally". "
I read that as: "Given that he is unable to play it normally, you can't logically infer that he changes the piece"! If you read your post again you'll see that it could also have been read that way.
I don't dispute that Stolzman could play the piece normally. I just asked why he chooses not to. Why does he actually choose to change the piece? Some performers can play just as expressively without changing the piece, so it's not impossible. My guess would be that Stolzman just doesn't have as much respect for the composer as other musicians have, so changing the odd note here, rhythm there, tempi, etc. doesn't seem important to him.
|
|