Klarinet Archive - Posting 000108.txt from 2005/01

From: Adam Michlin <amichlin@-----.com>
Subj: RE: [kl] RE: Klocker
Date: Sat, 8 Jan 2005 23:24:36 -0500

Perhaps I'm mistakenly assuming the existence of a tonic chord in second
inversion with a fermata in a classical era concerto is an indication that
a cadenza may be inserted by the performer. I am also assuming the composer
need not explicitly state "cadenza" in such circumstances. 11 measures
before the end of the K. 191, for example.

Is Rampal wrong to include a cadenza in his editions of the flute concerti?
If he is wrong, what is correct? To play the piece as written without
additions?

(Lest anyone think I'm implying that Rampal is a higher authority on such
matters, please know I will happily defer to Dan).

Also, when you say there is no cadenza for the bassoon concerto, are you
stating the fact that Mozart didn't compose one (which I am clear about) or
that Mozart didn't indicate to the performer to provide one (which I am
unclear about)?

I hope my question is clearer, but fear it is even more confused. Sorry,

-Adam

At 07:00 PM 1/8/2005 -0800, dnleeson wrote:
>I'm sorry Adam. I don't understand your question.
>
>My statement was simply that its hard for a clarinet to play a
>cadenza because it can't create harmonies with itself as can a
>piano or violin. I was trying to give a reason why Mozart did
>not include a cadenza. In fact I'm not sure if he ever wrote a
>cadenza for any instrument that could not produce a harmony with
>itself. There is no cadenza for the bassoon concerto, or the
>flute concerti. I'm not sure about the horn concerti.

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