Klarinet Archive - Posting 000105.txt from 2001/04

From: Bilwright@-----.net (William Wright)
Subj: RE: [kl] Meta-music?
Date: Thu, 5 Apr 2001 15:40:21 -0400

<><> Roger=A0Shilcock wrote:
Do we really know that "Stodla" didn't use vibrato? You seem to be
suggesting this.

Since I don't know music history, I'm guilty of an unwarranted
assumption. My purpose in posting was to discuss definitions of
"musical language" (if a definition is possible?). My reference to
"musical illiteracy" in a particular instance was because I let my guard
down for a moment. My error.

I found Reginald Kell recordings of K.622 and the Brahms quintet
that Dan Leeson suggested, and I'm going to listen to them because I'm
curious. But a specific recording is separate from the language issue
--- which is: Is music more complex and/or ambiguous than text language,
such that some of the basic language rules can't apply to music?

David Kumpf asked whether I was attributing "language vs.
meta-language confusion" to the composer or the performer. I should've
replied that either person --- performer or composer --- could create
the confusion (if such a confusion really exists). Again, I'm try to
think about the language issue, not about who made mistakes.

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