Klarinet Archive - Posting 000398.txt from 2001/01

From: bhampton <bhampton@-----.EDU>
Subj: RE: [kl] Composer vs. performer
Date: Fri, 12 Jan 2001 19:10:08 -0500

Hey,
My name's Bailey...you won't recognize it, because I've never responded to any
previous klarinet e-mails. However, I can relate to this topic. I am a
freshman student at the University of Richmond in Virginia, and this past
semester I took a course called "Truth in Music". We focused heavily on the
differences between composer intentions versus performers intentions and to
what extent the performer had to remain "faithful" to the composer.
According to what we discussed, the article in your paper is correct. The gulf
between composer and performer has been essentially created over the past
couple of centuries. With the establishment of a standardized notation, the
increased availability of printed music, and the increased detail noted by
composers in the music, increased differences have arisen between composer and
performer. The article was correct in stating that composers tended to be the
performers in the past...as to your question of wandering minstrels, i would
assume that they played original music, if not standard, traditional folk
songs or something of the sort. I don't think they would have had easy access
to other music.
I could go on for pages on the subject...we spent several weeks discussing it
in class...but what we discussed does agree with the article, if you are
simply looking for confirmation. It's a very interesting topic...

Bailey

>@-----.org =====
> .....I'm aware that Mozart wrote for Stadler, of course. But
>Stadler wrote some of his own as well. And so forth.
> So what I'm trying to do is to put the newspaper insert's assertion
>into perspective. Has there really been a significant shift of
>emphasis over the last few centuries?
>
>
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