Klarinet Archive - Posting 000842.txt from 1997/02

From: Jonathan Cohler <cohler@-----.net>
Subj: Re: Another question about Dvorak #9
Date: Tue, 25 Feb 1997 07:19:02 -0500

Edwin Lacy wrote:

>My second question is, "Why?" Why did Dvorak write it this way? Jonathan
>suggested that it was because a similer rhythm appears a little later in
>the triangle.

Excuse me if I was unclear. It's not a "similar" rhythm, and it's not "a
little later". It is *exactly the same rhythm*, and it appears in the
*very next measure* where the tongued and very rhythmical dance-like
passage in the winds, horns and trumpets starts.

The two occurrences in the clarinet set up this entrance.

>But, during the passage in question, even the strings are
>marked "trill," when it would be easier for them to do a bowed tremolo
>than for the clarinets to tongue that fast. And, the first two times that
>the woodwinds play, the clarinets are instructed to trill, along with the
>flutes. In looking at the score, I couldn't find what I thought was a
>logical reason for changing the clarinet part in those two measures. Any
>ideas? Speculation?

He put it in the clarinets probably because only the flutes and clarinets
are doing the question and answer trills with the strings and he wanted to
make a subtle transition/connection to the next section. (Adding another
instrument (such as percussion or trumpet at that point would be much more
jarring.)

---------------------
Jonathan Cohler
cohler@-----.net

   
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