Klarinet Archive - Posting 000335.txt from 1995/03

From: Jonathan Cohler <cohler@-----.NET>
Subj: Re: The Stately Polacca
Date: Sat, 11 Mar 1995 22:37:43 -0500

Fred Jacobowitz wrote:

>Jonathan,
> As is often the case in such differences of opinion, we are both
>right. Firstly, though, your examples are excellent.
> I prefer to look in musical dictionaries whenver I can, when it
>comes to musical matters which can be hair-splitting. After all, I
>wouldn't look in Webster's for the definitive lowdown on a medical
>condition. I'd look in a medical encyclopedia. By the same token, I think
>the Americna Heritage Dictionary is not the most authoritative source. I
>looked in the two musical dictionaries which are univerally agreed to be
>the most authoritative and they both say that, yes, the term polacca is
>usually translated as Italian for "polonaise". However, both go on to
>assert that it often has a different meaning. To quote from the New Groves
>Dictionary of Music: "Polacca (It.: "Polish") A term applied to
>compositions inthe Polish style ('alla polacca'); is usually taken as the
>Italian equivalent of Polonaise....came to be applied to instrumental or
>vocal pieces related tenuously or not at all to the
>polonaise...Instrumental polaccas are often showy and ornate...Thus,
>Chopin...wrote of his 'alla polacca' with 'cello accompaniment op. 3 as
>"nothing
> more than abrilliant drawing-room piece"..."
>So you are definitely right about the faster nature of the Weber 'alla
>polacca'.

Thank you for the reference. I was not aware of other possible
translations of 'polacca'. However, your citation does indicate that
"polonaise" is the =most common= translation of polacca, so how do you know
that Weber's use of the term is referring to one of the less common
meanings?

Also, your citation says that the term "came to be applied to...pieces
related tenously or not at all to the polonaise". The wording "came to be"
implies that at least initially it was used solely to mean polonaise. The
obvious next question is when did it "come to be". My guess is that in
Weber's time (if someone knows differently, let's hear it), the term was
still used quite literally to refer to the polonaise. I would guess the
more loose usage began to occur in the mid to late 19th century.

Clearly, the third movement of Weber 2 has many of the so-called
characteristic rhythmic patterns and accents of the loosely defined
polonaise, doesn't it?

In any case, we are definitely in agreement that the movement should be
played fast and flashy! The semantics are important, however, because I
believe there are many passages in the movement that need to have that
stately, somewhat pompous sort of marchlike feeling.

----------------

Jonathan Cohler
cohler@-----.net